Step 2 CK NBME Form 2
Block 1
1. B (well-fitted shoes to avoid trauma. prophylactic antibiotics not indicated.)
2. A (clue from the stem: hyperthyroidism, irregularly irregular pulse, variation in intensity of S1)
3. C
4. E (hereditary spherocytosis)
5. B
6. E (NSAID papillary necrosis doesn't happen so fast. History of trauma makes E best answer)
7. C (DT boosters indicated after every 10 years. She has all 5 doses of DTP already, so now booster is with adult DT even if she is 16 year old.)
8. C (SIADH can happen secondary to meningitis)
9. D (Hemochromatosis)
10. A (identifiable stressor)
11. J
12. H
13. D (renal artery stenosis)
14. A (HTN with hypokalemia >> Conn's syndrome)
15. D
16. B (fixed splitting of S2)
17.
18. D (refractile body at bifurcation of retinal artery >> cholesterol emboli from the internal carotid artery atherosclerotic disease >> duplex scan of carotid artery)
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. A [Pt has a crude pincer grasp- This should have been mastered by 9-14 months to be normal]
26. E
27. C
28. C (only option that goes with restrictive disease)
29. D
30. G
31. D
32. B (fat soluble vitamin)
33. E
34. A
35. C
36. A (antibiotic prophylaxis for Chronic bacterial prostatitis)
37. F
38. A (Huntington's disease)
39. G
40. A (cyclosporine-induced hypertension)
41. E
42. B
43. E (obesity >> increased estrogen)
44. C (crossed hemiplegia)
45. B
46. F
BLOCK 2
1. D (pin-point pupils >> opiates)
2. B
3. A (Lyme disease)
4. D (Granulosa cells produce excessive amounts of estrogen)
5. C
6. D
7. B (Elevating the left testicle relieves the pain >> Epidodymitis)
8. D (side effect of enalapril)
9. D (Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. As explained by a commenter: the reason there is thrombocytopenia in HIT is because the Heparin-Platelet4 complex are attacked by IgG in the human bodies that essentially activate the platelet and thus form clots. These clots are the reason free platelets are low.)
10. C
11. B (pulsus paradoxus)
12. D
13. C (biliary colic)
14. C (Oral isotretinoin is never the first option for acne, only used when topical treatments have failed)
15. B
16. C
17. B (screening of lipid profil routinly done for every HTN patient)
18. A
19. B
20. E
21. F
22. D
23. D
24. E (white patches over the skin that become more distinct with Wood's lamp examination "ash leaf spots" >> Tuberous sclerosis)
25. D
26. I
27. B
28. E
29. B
30. D
31. E
32. B
33. B (question stem says that mother applies sunscreen 'just before she goes swimming', which is incorrect way. It should be applied at least 15-30 min before sun exposure)
34. A (Botulism)
35. A
36. D (VSD)
37. E
38. D
39. D
40. B
41. C
42. E
43. D
44. E
45. C
46. D
Block 3
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. A (aldolase-B deficiency)
7. B
8. D
9. D (risk of repeated falls)
10. B (Xanthelasma >> high cholestrol)
11. E
12. B
13. D (Prinzmetal angina)
14. A
15. C (Diabetes Inspidus)
16. E
17. C (I am confused between Conversion and Malingering, because there is possibly a motive [she doesn't want to move] but it isn't clearly stated either. So on revising the question, I am now more tilted towards Conversion.)
18. G
19. C (Patient has febrile neutropenia >> IV antibiotics)
20. B
21. E (Surgery to relieve obstruction)
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. H
26. E
27. C
28. D
29. G (Cardiac tamponade)
30. A
31. D (CMV infection)
32. D
33. C (Herpes zoster)
34. C (adrenal crisis)
35. B
36. C
37. B
38. F (Isoniazid >> B6 deficiency)
39. E
40. D (Warfarin contraindicated in pregnancy)
41. E
42. F
43. D
44. B
45. C
46. D (tension pneumothorax >> decreased venous return)
Block 4
1. A (breath holding spell >> reassurance)
2. A (RR shows a relationship but p value is statistically insignificant)
3. B
4. E (anaphylaxis)
5. E (high clinical suspicion with low-probability VQ scan >> angiography)
6. F
7. C (multiple areas of increased and decreased uptake >> MNG)
8. G
9. C (acute presentation makes aortic valve rupture more likely than congestive heart failure)
10. B (in a terminally ill patient, the priority is pain control)
11. A (erythema toxicum >> self-limiting condition)
12. C (MR, large testes >> fragile X syndrome)
13. E (Digoxin toxicity)
14. E
15. F (previous episodes of a sudden decline of cognitive functioning >> multi-infarct dementia)
16. C
17. E (delirium tremens)
18. D
19. J (proximal muscle weakness, polymyositis is one of the causes)
20. E
21. E
22. D (Mitral stenosis; most common cause RHD)
23. E (Mastitis: antibiotics, continue breast feeding)
24. A (Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug. For the treatment of hypotension during spinal anesthesia.)
25. B (Metoprolol improves mortality in heart disease)
26. F
27. D (Chronic Granulomatous disease)
28. D (S4 points towards MI)
29. D
30. A
31. C (thiazide diuretic >> gout)
32. B
33. D (GI obstruction >> NG tube first step)
34. D (HTN in young patient >> look for renal artery stenosis)
35. A (Malignancy related hypercalcemia fits best: Depression, Muscle weakness and fatigue, decreased tendon reflex, weight loss. Hypothyroidism wouldn't account for the weight loss.)
36. A
37. C (insulin and glucose >> fastest way to lower down serum K)
38. E (she is asymptomatic, no treatment at this point is indicated)
39. D (intussusception >> contrast enema both diagnostic and therapeutic)
40. C (ectopic pregnancy)
41. D
42. D
43. C
44. A (Hepatic artery complications are very common following liver transplant in children.)
45. A (http://pediatrics.aappublications.org/content/65/6/1125.abstract)
46. C
block 1 q 2 is A) Atrial fib. causes variation in S1
ReplyDeletethank you. the offline questions didn't have the accompanying ECG, leading to confusion. corrected above.
ReplyDeleteHi awais192, just wanted to clear a confusion in block 3, no 13, as you rightly pointed out, this is Prinzmetal angina as the question clearly says that there were no atherosclerotic lesion on angiography. The DOC for this is of course CCB.
ReplyDeleteBut my confusion is as the patient has progressed to IW MI too as mentioned in the question as STEMI in leads II, III and aVF, it seems the CCB is actually going to harm this patient because of vasodilation >> reflex tachycardia >> increased cardiac workload.
In my opinion, I think it is better to use ACEi which has a clear mortality benefit in MI first and once the patient has stabilized, then use a CCB (later) for prevention of future episodes of Prinzmetal's.
Does this make sense or is there another explanation I'm missing?
Thanks.
@ Taurus
ReplyDeleteIn Prinzmetal angina there are transient ST elevations due to the temporary spasm of the blood vessels, and these are usually not treated as myocardial infarction.
http://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMra022580
@ awais192..
ReplyDeleteOk thanks..
Still getting so many answers wrong even when I do know many of the right answers and only realizing after I check it with your answers here and re-reading the questions.. any advice on how to improve on that.
Thanks again.
Hi, Block 3 q17. I disagree with 'tonic clonic seizure' as the answer, because the eeg is normal during one of the episodes. Most likely 'conversion disorder'.
ReplyDeleteThanks
@ above
ReplyDeleteI didn't answer it as tonic clonic seizure. I had answered it as Malingering. I am confused between Conversion and Malingering, because there is possibly a motive (she doesn't want to move) but it isn't clearly stated either. So on revising the question, I am now more tilted towards Conversion.
I wana add, the EEG is fine, even though if it is conversion, wont we see some in EEG in chanconversion disorder? can anyone plz reply
DeleteThere aren't any EEG changes in conversion disorder.
DeleteQ19, why you have B as the answer??
ReplyDeleteBlock 3 Q 19, why have you chosen B as the answer??
ReplyDeleteCould you pls explain.
In my opinion it should be C, so as to give prophylactic antibiotics for neutropenia.
@ k s
ReplyDeleteI'm sorry, that was a typo. The answer is C. Febrile neutropenia. Thanks for pointing out.
can some one send me offline nbme questions please...saranyaadd@gmail.com
ReplyDeleteThank you for sharing the keys with us.
ReplyDeleteAs for block3 q21, I prefer the answer as E.
Chemotherapy should be the first modality applied to the patients with stageIV colorectal cancer.(FOLFOX and FOLFIRI) Then we consider surgical resection of primary and metastatic lesions if no surgical contraindication.
This patient has abdominal obstruction. Even in this case you think chemotherapy would be the first option?
DeleteHe 85, I think chemo would be better before surgery.
Deletein this case palliative surgery is needed as tumor is obstructing the colon; adjuvant chemo/radio should be added for the mets though
Deleteblock 4 q 35 i think is hyper Ca
ReplyDeletefatigue, m weakness, slow dtr, psych all fits
wt loss = MM
i dont c how thyroid could cover wt loss
Yes, you are right. I didn't consider it. Malignancy-related hypercalcemia fits better. Thank you.
DeleteI was in between those two but I picked "B" TSH b/c I couldn't find any risk factors for malignancy
DeleteHypothyroidism--> depression(weakness, wt loss, fatigue, etc) and slow return of tendon reflex
Although I do not if hypothyroidism will randomly present in a 76 year old
block 3 35
ReplyDeleteis it malingering
It's not malingering as such, but the fact that she is planning to file a claim for it goes against her motivation for hasty recovery. At least, that's what I think is the case.
DeleteIts conversion for sure
DeleteCan you please explain why "D" is a wrong answer in block 3 q 45?
ReplyDeletemany thanks
can u plz explain why Block 1 Q3 is E..in my opinion it should be C.Is there any idea that young children resist infection less?plz some1 explain..:)
ReplyDeleteThe correct answer is C. In my notes I had crossed E with C, [3. E XC] and this got overlooked when I uploaded it.
Deletehello there could someone send me the offline nbme2? mfchery@hotmail.com.
ReplyDeleteI would love to particiate but dont remember details. I took it yesterday.
the bloc 1 q7 answer is c not b.
ReplyDeleteshe has all 5 doses of dtp already. now booster is with adult dt even if she is 16 y o.
thank you! you are right.
DeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteQuestion 8 from block 4 seems like it would be cardiac tamponade, not PE. You have Beck's Triad for tamponade, as well as clear lungs. Why is the right answer not D?
ReplyDeleteIn cardiac tamponade there are muffled heart sounds. Heart sounds are normal in this case.
Deletethat question says "discrete PMI", are we assuming that if they don't say muffled heart sounds that it is normal?
Deletediscrete PMI is normal.
DeleteAlso, there case says 'right parasternal heave', which is another hint for PE
its definitely cardiac tamponade. you cannot have elevated JVD with PE. thats a main difference between the two.
DeleteMassive PE can cause RV failure & JVD.
DeletePlease let me know where to download the offline version of nbme 2-3-4
ReplyDeleteThanks
give me ur email. i'll email you.
Deletehello, could you please email me the offline version for the 4 nbme's as well?
Deletehtkd001@gmail.com
Thank you!
hello
Deleteme too please
my email ddavp1919@live.com
Hi!! Im also preparing for step2ck, can you also send the offline forms to me? yesenia2704@gmail.com...Thx u!!
Deletehey... could you please email me the offline version for the four nbme's as well? especially form 2 and 4?
Deleteomar_dbz@hotmail.com
thanks!
Hi, my exam is in a week and I'm trying to match up the ans to the nbme I just took, so if anyone can please provde the questions for the offline nbme's, it will be much appreciated!. Thank you!
ReplyDeletehtkd001@gmail.com
the download links have been updated.
DeleteHey, thanks for doing this, was thinking the same thing. Got a few corrections:
ReplyDeleteBlock 3 Q2: Answer is E. If over a certain BP, you start rx regardless, there is a table on uptodate with weight/heights/ages that has the cutoffs
Block 4: Q9: Answer is C, from the acute presentation = aortic valve rupture
Q 35: Is definitely E, the delayed relaxation phase is is classic for hypothyroid
Q28 block 4: not sure about this one but could be diffuse esophageal spasm (the relief with nitro was what made me think that, and no radiation of pain)
q28 block 4, I believe the pain would be more severe and it wouldn't be associated with exertion if it was spasms
Deleteditto to block 3 q2
Deletehttp://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/prof/heart/hbp/hbp_ped.pdf
Block 3 Q2, what cut-off BP would apply in this patient to start pharmacologic treatment?
DeleteBlock 4, Q9. Yes, acute presentation would make aortic valve rupture more likely. Thanks.
DeleteTo awls block 3 q2:
DeleteThe chart shows that it depends on the age, so for this child she was 15 and her blood pressure was above the 99th for her age which would require pharmacologic treatment. Or if she was 90-95% with symptoms that would also require treatment.
In block 4 ,q10
ReplyDeleteWhy not the answer C ??
administering the centrally acting stimulant is unnecessary. the Q is a test of medical ethics. B is humane and morally permissible.
DeleteBlock 2 number 9 i think should be D: Uncontrolled activation of coagulation and Fibrinolytic Cascades. The thrombocytopenia is due to heparin, like you said. But the reason there is thrombocytopenia in HIT is because the Heparin-Platelet4 complex are attacked by IgG in the human bodies that essentially activate the platelet and thus form clots. These clots are the reason free platelets are low.
ReplyDeletethank you for the correction!
Deleteit cant be D because the INR is normal, & the coagulation cascade(ie clotting factors) is not activated in HIT; uncontrolled activation of coagulation & fibrinolytic cascades occurs in DIC
Deletein HIT there is antibody mediated activation 9 not destruction ) of platelets - i LL GO WITH D
Deleteblock4 q40
ReplyDeletewhat were the question and answer choices?
40. A previously healthy 14-year-old girl is
Deletebrought to the
emergency department because of abdominal pain for 12
hours. She has a 1-week
history of brownish vaginal discharge. Menarche was
at the age of 12
years, and her periods have occurred at regular 28-day
intervals over
the past year. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks
ago. Her
temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 85/55
mm Hg, pulse is 145/min,
and respirations are 24/min. Abdominal examination
shows generalized
tenderness, and there is guarding with rebound in the
right lower
quadrant. Her hematocrit is 24%, and leukocyte count
is 9400/mm3 (60%
segmented neutrophils, 3% bands, 1% eosinophils, 35%
lymphocytes, and 1%
monocytes). Serum electrolyte levels are within
normal limits.
A
) Administration of parenteral antibiotics
B
) Admission to the hospital for medical management
C
) Admission to the hospital for operative
management
D
) Colon contrast studies
E
) Discharge for follow-up by personal physician
F
) Endoscopy
G
) MRI of the abdomen
H
) Observation in the emergency department
Block 4, Q 34.
ReplyDeleteWhy is sodium and potassium normal in this patient if it is secondary hypertension due to renal artery stenosis?
Is disturbance of Na and K levels a must in Renal Artery Stensis?
Deleteit should be,bcz stenosis,leads to inc aldosterone,that causes Na and water retention so hypertension . .and at the same time it dec potassium level . .
Deleteit does not match the nbme 2ck form 2 that i just took 3 days ago!!
ReplyDeletefrom the explanations that you make the qs are different!!
I think the qs are just mixed.
any suggestions?
thx guys..
the questions in the online nbme are in a different arrangement from the ones you'll find offline. the questions and blocks are the same, only arrangement is different.
Deletethanks awais192,
Deleteis it possible to make hints for all the Qs as the others?
thanks again.
hey awias192, can you plsease send me nbme 3 and 4....my exam in 1st week of august thanx... and ya i really appreciate these answers help a lot...
ReplyDeleteneel4887@yahoo.in
Hi awais,
ReplyDeleteCan you please send me the nbme form 2 please. My exam is in 4 days time. Thanks.. My email is koramy@gmail.com
Q 15, Blk 4.
ReplyDeleteThe answer put is lt temporal lobe infarct, assuming that you are thinking this is multi-infarct dementia..however the pt does not exhibit any focal neurological deficits such as speech or hearing problems. If the temporal lobe is infarcted, then he would have some hearing manifestations as well as memory issues. I feel this is very difficult to distinguish from Alzheimer's and that is what I marked, but I am unsure.
"The patient has had at
Deleteleast three to four
previous episodes of a sudden decline of cognitive
functioning over the
past 3 years without full recovery."
This is characteristic of multi-infarct dementia.
I was wondering if it possible to have 3 yrs of multi-infarct without any neurological symptoms?
DeleteAnyone have any idea of score estimation if I took it offline? Like if I missed 30 for example anyone have an idea what the 3 digit score might be?
ReplyDeletehttp://step2cknbme.blogspot.com/2012/08/nbme-step-2ck-offline-correlation-table.html
Deleteq30 block 4
ReplyDeleteHe is sundowning which can be seen in dementia patients, therefore the answer is D(haloperidol)
Haloperidol for sundowning? Can you give a reference?
Deletehttp://www.clinicalgeriatrics.com/articles/Sundowning-Syndrome-Older-Patient?page=0,2
DeleteIts not as formal as a source, but its accurate. Article talks about lighting during the day, but then wikipedia talks about lighting at night and as informal as wiki is, its never led me astray. I guess the answer could be A since we would want to use non pharmacological treatment beforehand?
hi,
DeleteThanks for sharing this.can you plz expalin this
A 2-month-old boy is brought to the physician because
of a 6-week
history of persistent diarrhea and vomiting, most
pronounced after formula
feedings. He has had a 113-g (4-oz) weight loss since
birth. He
currently weighs 3100 g (6 lb 13 oz) and is 51 cm (20
in) in length. He
appears irritable. Examination shows jaundice. The
lungs are clear to
auscultation. No murmurs are heard. The liver is
palpated 2 to 3 cm
below the right costal margin, and the spleen is
palpated 1 to 2 cm below
the left costal margin. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Glucose 35 mg/dL
Bilirubin (total) 2.3 mg/dL
Urine
Glucose negative
Reducing substances 3+
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of
these findings?
A
) Decreased gluconeogenesis
B
) Decreased insulin secretion
C
) Increased glucagon secretion
D
) Increased gluconeogenesis
E
) Increased insulin secretion
F
) Insulin resistance
Decreased gluconeogenesis 2ndary to Aldolase B deficiency.... Form 3 Q.6
DeleteBlock 2 : Q. 35 child was born premature so E. should be the right answer. i think something similar was in Uworld.
ReplyDeleteBlock 2 : Q. 45 since the pt is an IV drug abuser Echo should be the right choice because back pain is most likely due spetic emboli from the heart causing an abscess formation and next step in management would be CT scan not MRI.
plz let me know if this sounds right and thanks for the answer keys really appreciate it.
block 2 Q45: as you said its most likely an epidural abscess formed due to a septic emboli from the heart.. the diagnosis of an epidural abscess is by MRI not a CT scan. ( abscess in the abdomen would be diagnosed by CT)
DeleteBlock2 Q25: i am confused on that one too.. A seems more appropriate.. anyone who took the form online plz answer this..
Deleteoops, typo.. E seems more appropriate..
DeleteBlock 2 Q 45,correct answer is C, MRI of back. this patient is IV drug user, key is fever and back pain and tenderness over L4 on palpation, they are leading you to see osteomyelitis due to IV drug use. Most common cause is staph aureus. Key to diagnosing is MRI of the back. there is a similar question in U world.
DeleteI think it is seizures, option E. I was stuck between A (child abuse) and E (seizures), I think its seizures. I found the following:
Delete"Preterm birth increased the odds for epilepsy in adulthood as much as five-fold, Swedish investigators reported.
The odds rose by 75% for a gestational age at birth of 35 to 36 weeks and increased as gestational age decreased. Adults who were born before 32 weeks had an epilepsy rate that was five times greater than that of adults delivered at full term (≥37 weeks)."
source:
http://www.medpagetoday.com/Neurology/Seizures/28858
In block 3 q5, why is the ans C? Isn't 15y the age at which you begin investigating the reason behind amenorrhea..?
ReplyDeleteWould someone be kind enough to explain. Thanks a lot!!
I thought that too, but if you research, the age is actually 16. I googled it. from wiki and other sources: " It is defined as an absence of secondary sexual characteristics by age 14 with no menarche or normal secondary sexual characteristics but no menarche by 16 years of age"
Deletehow do you estimate your score with form 2? thanks
ReplyDeleteI took paid for version and based off what I put as my answers and this key I missed 31 which was a 235 if that helps anyone.
ReplyDeleteBLOCK 2 question 35. shouldnt the answer be E?? how can it be hypocalcemia. can you explain?
ReplyDeleteI think it is seizures, option E. I was stuck between A (child abuse) and E (seizures), I think its seizures. I found the following:
Delete"Preterm birth increased the odds for epilepsy in adulthood as much as five-fold, Swedish investigators reported.
The odds rose by 75% for a gestational age at birth of 35 to 36 weeks and increased as gestational age decreased. Adults who were born before 32 weeks had an epilepsy rate that was five times greater than that of adults delivered at full term (≥37 weeks)."
source:
http://www.medpagetoday.com/Neurology/Seizures/28858
I know this thread is old but any way I can get access to the offline questions? Just took the test today- exam next week
ReplyDeletethe download links on top left are not working?
DeleteHello everyone.
ReplyDeleteCan anyone be kind enough to email me NBME -4 please. Thanks in advance :)
Caramelboy24@gmail.com
BLOCK 4, Q 36, WHY CCANNOT SCHIZO BE THE ANSWER, COZ THE PATIENT HAS AUDITORY HALLUCINATIONS.
ReplyDeleteHOW WILL YOU DIFFERENTIATE?
THANKS.
pt has history of depression. the voices have been going on for 3 days, so it cant be schizophrenia. this is a manic episode. so bipolar disorder is correct answer
Deleteblock 4 , q 9
ReplyDeleteIf it was aortic valve rupture, it would lead to aortic regurgitation, and the murmur would be heard right? And there would be a wide pulse pressure too, how will you explain this?
block 4 q 4
ReplyDeleteif the patient had anaphylaxis, would she present after 2 hrs to the ER?
moreover, its I.M. epinephrine which is given and not subcutaneous right?
Could it be an exacerbation of asthma, which could be treated with inhaled bronchodilators or steroids?
please explain, thanks.
block 4 q4, Im with you, I don't know if its necessarily anaphylaxis. I picked the beta agonists as well. Here is why though. I reread the Q. SHE IS UNSTABLE, look at the BP:
Delete"Her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min and regular, and respirations are 20/min"
She needs epi, her BP is dangerously low. Epi takes care of her BP and the lungs at once. beta agonist wont do anything for her BP.
Form 1:
ReplyDeletehttp://www.filefactory.com/file/3r9ukrajouuh/n/Form_1.doc
Form 2:
http://www.filefactory.com/file/4r8ntngpj81x/n/Form_2.doc
Form 3:
http://www.filefactory.com/file/7ox0qqzgte1/n/Form3.zip
Form 4:
http://www.sendspace.com/file/kvzrnx
Block 2, q 9. HIT has nothing to do with coagulation cascade and fibrinolysis. HIT very simslar to ITP with overdestruction of platelets by circulating antibodies with the only difference that in the case of HIT this antibodies are specific for PF4. This supported by normal PT and PTT. So, I think correct answer is A.
ReplyDeletecan someone please send me the step2 nbme forms to this email izzykuritho@gmail.com.
ReplyDeletethank u in advance
B4Q9E
ReplyDeleteHow does this person rupture her aortic valve? acute endocarditis? I don't think so. severe blunt trauma? not there.
Wouldn't she have severe aortic regurg if valve ruptured? like increased pulse pressure and diastolic murmur? she has 90/60 and an S3.
I think it is CHF.
B2Q9A
I agree it is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, therefore I marked "excessive platelet destruction"
B1Q17D
Heel tenderness in a runner, plantar fasciitis.
By the way, thank you for your work.
ReplyDeletehey guys I was just wondering if someone could send me nbme form 2 questions to this email ensar.hasanovic@yahoo.com
ReplyDeleteThanks.
hi guys B2 Q41
ReplyDeletethe answer is A, this is a urea cycle defect, Carbamyol phosphate synthase, or Ornithine Trans Carbomyolase, both give a profond acidosis, and symptomes of hyper ammoniemia, and they are mitochodrial enzymes, so the answer is A
wow, good thinking, very tough question, I wonder if the test considers NH4 an organic acid? I dont think it is. I looked all over google, ammonia (NH4) is considered a weak base/ weak acid from what I have found. You are right both enzymes of the Urea cycle are in the mitochondrial matrix of the liver hepatocytes, here is a source for what carbamoyl phosphate synthase I does...
Deletehttp://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/gene/1373
can someone explain number 42 block 4 of form 2 please
ReplyDeleteHis PPD is positive, so he needs prophylaxis whichis with INH and vit B6 ( as inh leads to deficiency of b6)
Deleteq3B1: Can someone please explain why is B not the correct answer?
ReplyDeletesalivary enzymes would not augment (to make greater) the infection. these bites are usually deep puncture wounds, therefore difficult to cleanse, so that is why C is right.
Deleteplease email me at reedsposer22@hotmail.com if you need NMBE forms 1-4. I can email you them. I organized them into nice PDFs that can be viewed easily, each page is dedicated to 1 question! Took a while to do it, but it turned out nice. let me know! good luck studyn for STEP 2 CK. I take mine next week!!!!! May 29th 2013 is the big day for me!!
ReplyDelete